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shortness of breath

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on shortness of breath.

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A 48-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of increasing fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, and a persistent cough productive of small amounts of mucus. She mentions a history of recurrent 'sinus infections' over the past year, often treated with antibiotics. She has recently felt lightheaded on standing. On examination, her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Chest auscultation reveals diffuse expiratory wheezes. Blood tests performed last week show haemoglobin 85 g/L (reference range 120-150), MCV 72 fL (reference range 80-100), and normal white cell count and platelet count. Spirometry performed concurrently shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.65 (predicted >0.70) with partial reversibility after bronchodilator. Considering the clinical presentation and investigations, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Order ANCA testing.
B. Initiate iron supplementation and investigate for gastrointestinal blood loss.
C. Arrange a high-resolution CT scan of the chest and sinuses.
D. Refer for urgent bronchoscopy.
E. Prescribe a course of oral corticosteroids and review in one week.
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He reports that the pain started acutely this morning and has been gradually worsening. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and has been taking warfarin for the past 5 years. He denies any recent trauma or injury. On examination, his vital signs are: heart rate 110 bpm, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 28 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 88% on room air. Auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds on the right side. The patient is pale and diaphoretic. A chest X-ray was initially performed, followed by the image shown. Given the clinical presentation and the findings on the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Administer protamine sulfate
B. Perform a thoracentesis
C. Administer intravenous antibiotics
D. Order a ventilation/perfusion scan
E. Insert a chest tube
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to sudden onset wheezing and difficulty breathing. He has a history of asthma, for which he uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed. His parents report that he had a cold over the past few days, and today he started wheezing and became short of breath. On examination, he is in moderate respiratory distress, with a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation of 92% on room air, and widespread wheezing on auscultation. What is the most appropriate initial management step for this child?

A. Administer nebulized salbutamol
B. Provide supplemental oxygen
C. Initiate inhaled corticosteroids
D. Start oral corticosteroids
E. Administer intravenous magnesium sulfate
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of progressive shortness of breath, dry cough, and fatigue. She has a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and is currently on hydroxychloroquine and low-dose prednisone. She denies fever, chest pain, or recent travel. On examination, her temperature is 37.2°C, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 95 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. Lung auscultation reveals bilateral basal crackles. Laboratory tests show a hemoglobin level of 10.5 g/dL, white blood cell count of 4,000/mm³, and platelets of 150,000/mm³. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.45, PaCO2 of 35 mmHg, and PaO2 of 55 mmHg. A chest X-ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrates. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiation of non-invasive ventilation
B. High-dose intravenous methylprednisolone
C. Intravenous cyclophosphamide
D. Empirical broad-spectrum antibiotics
E. Bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with acute dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. His INR is 7.0. A chest CT is performed (image attached). After initial resuscitation, what is the MOST appropriate intervention?

A. Administer intravenous vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate
B. Perform needle thoracostomy
C. Administer intravenous protamine sulfate
D. Administer intravenous furosemide
E. Observe and repeat CT scan in 6 hours
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A 57-year-old lady with a chronic cough, a 35 pack-year smoking history, and breathlessness with daily tasks has had spirometry done. What is the likely interpretation of the spirometry results?

A. Normal spirometry
B. Mod OAD, no reversibility.
C. Severe obstructive airway disease, with reversibility.
D. Restrictive pattern
E. Mild OAD, no reversibility.
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with increasing dyspnea. He has a history of GORD. The provided image was taken. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Refer for surgical consultation for fundoplication.
B. Prescribe prokinetic agents to improve gastric emptying.
C. Initiate a trial of PPI therapy and lifestyle modifications.
D. Order a barium swallow study to further evaluate the anatomy.
E. Perform an upper endoscopy to assess for complications.
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A 72-year-old man with fatigue and a past myocardial infarction at 55 is breathless on stairs, has a 3 kg weight gain, and ankle marks. What is his likely NYHA functional class for chronic heart failure?

A. NYHA Class 3
B. NYHA Class 2
C. NYHA Class 4
D. NYHA Class 1
E. Not enough information to classify.
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A 72-year-old man presents to the clinic with progressive shortness of breath and a chronic cough producing white sputum. He has a 40-pack-year smoking history and worked in construction for most of his life. On examination, he has clubbing of the fingers and crackles at the lung bases. A chest X-ray shows diffuse reticular opacities, particularly at the lung bases. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Asbestosis
D. Congestive heart failure
E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
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A 25-year-old Aboriginal man presents to a remote clinic with increasing shortness of breath on exertion and palpitations over the past month. He recalls having a sore throat as a child but no specific diagnosis. On examination, his pulse is 95 bpm, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate 20 breaths/min. Auscultation reveals a pansystolic murmur loudest at the apex, radiating to the axilla. There are no signs of heart failure currently. Considering the likely diagnosis and the patient's background, which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A. D-dimer
B. Cardiac troponin
C. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
D. Chest X-ray
E. Echocardiogram
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A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion. His blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 7.5 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 72 fL, and low serum ferritin. He has a history of osteoarthritis and takes ibuprofen regularly. What is the most likely cause of his anemia?

A. Thalassemia minor
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Chronic blood loss due to gastrointestinal bleeding
D. Anemia of chronic disease
E. Hemolytic anemia
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A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and heart failure is admitted to the hospital with increasing shortness of breath and peripheral edema. She is currently taking furosemide 40mg daily. Her blood tests reveal the following: Na+ 130 mmol/L (135-145 mmol/L), K+ 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.0 mmol/L), Cl- 95 mmol/L (98-107 mmol/L), HCO3- 32 mmol/L (22-29 mmol/L). What is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Administer intravenous normal saline and continue furosemide at the same dose.
B. Administer an ACE inhibitor and monitor sodium levels.
C. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate and increase the dose of furosemide.
D. Hold furosemide, administer intravenous potassium chloride, and restrict free water intake.
E. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate and monitor potassium levels.
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of GERD. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. An axial CT image is shown. Considering the clinical presentation and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Arrange urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
B. Request a barium swallow study
C. Referral for surgical repair
D. Discharge with advice on lifestyle modification and follow-up
E. Initiate high-dose proton pump inhibitor therapy
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A 68-year-old woman with a history of heart failure presents to the emergency department with increasing shortness of breath and lower extremity edema. She has been taking furosemide 40mg daily for the past year. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 90 bpm, and respiratory rate is 24 breaths/min. An ECG shows flattened T waves and prominent U waves. Which of the following is the most likely electrolyte abnormality contributing to her presentation?

A. Hypomagnesemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
E. Hyponatremia
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin presents to the ED after a fall. He complains of dyspnea and right-sided chest pain. His INR is 5.0. Vitals: HR 110, BP 100/60, RR 28, SpO2 90% on room air. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Administer IV protamine sulfate
B. Tube thoracostomy
C. Administer IV vitamin K
D. Administer IV tranexamic acid
E. Observation with serial chest X-rays
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with increasing shortness of breath and intermittent chest discomfort over the past week. She reports some difficulty swallowing larger food boluses recently but denies significant heartburn. Her past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. On examination, her vital signs are stable: BP 135/85 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 18/min, SpO2 94% on room air, Temp 36.8°C. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at the left base. A central venous catheter is noted in the right subclavian vein. Initial blood tests show a mild normocytic anaemia (Hb 105 g/L) and normal inflammatory markers. An urgent imaging study is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the provided imaging study, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Administer intravenous diuretics for suspected acute decompensated heart failure.
B. Prepare for immediate surgical reduction and repair.
C. Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics for suspected community-acquired pneumonia.
D. Arrange a contrast swallow study or CT scan of the chest and abdomen.
E. Prescribe a high-dose proton pump inhibitor and review in outpatient clinic.
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of intermittent retrosternal burning pain, worse after meals, and occasional shortness of breath on exertion. Vital signs are stable. Physical exam unremarkable. A chest X-ray is performed. Considering the findings on the image, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Reassure the patient that the finding is benign and requires no further action.
B. Urgent surgical consultation for repair.
C. Initiate a trial of proton pump inhibitor therapy.
D. Proceed directly to oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD).
E. Refer for a stress echocardiogram to rule out cardiac ischaemia.
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and has been taking warfarin for the past 5 years. His INR is currently 6.0. A CT scan of the chest is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate initial management step?

A. Administer intravenous vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)
B. Administer intravenous tranexamic acid
C. Administer intravenous protamine sulfate
D. Perform a needle thoracostomy
E. Observe and monitor the patient's respiratory status
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A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. He has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is a current smoker. On examination, he is tachypneic and has decreased breath sounds on the right side. A chest X-ray reveals a large right-sided pneumothorax. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Start intravenous antibiotics
B. Insert a chest tube
C. Perform needle decompression
D. Administer high-flow oxygen
E. Order a CT scan of the chest
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A 62-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and type 2 diabetes presents to the emergency department with increasing shortness of breath over the past two days. He reports a productive cough with greenish sputum and denies chest pain. On examination, he is using accessory muscles to breathe, has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. His blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg, and his heart rate is 105 bpm. Auscultation of the chest reveals diffuse wheezing and decreased breath sounds bilaterally. An arterial blood gas analysis shows pH 7.32, PaCO2 55 mmHg, and PaO2 60 mmHg. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)
B. Provide supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula
C. Administer intravenous corticosteroids
D. Administer a bronchodilator nebulizer treatment
E. Start broad-spectrum antibiotics
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A 45-year-old man presents to the general practice clinic with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath and a persistent dry cough. He works as a construction worker and has a 20-pack-year smoking history. On examination, he has clubbing of the fingers and fine inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. Pulmonary function tests show a restrictive pattern. A high-resolution CT scan of the chest reveals reticular opacities and honeycombing predominantly in the lower lobes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Sarcoidosis
B. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D. Asbestosis
E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male on warfarin presents with pleuritic chest pain and mild dyspnea. INR is 4.5. The image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?

A. Observation and serial chest X-rays
B. Urgent bronchoscopy
C. Vitamin K administration
D. Chest tube insertion
E. IV protamine sulfate
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with acute severe dyspnoea and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. Vitals: T 36.8°C, HR 95, BP 110/70, RR 24, SpO2 92% RA. Exam: decreased breath sounds, dullness right hemithorax. A CT scan of the chest is performed. Considering the patient's presentation, history, and the imaging findings, which is the most appropriate immediate management?

A. Arrange for urgent bronchoscopy to rule out airway obstruction
B. Observe the patient closely in the intensive care unit without specific intervention
C. Increase the dose of warfarin and monitor INR
D. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics and arrange for thoracentesis
E. Administer Vitamin K and Prothrombinex (PCC) and arrange for chest tube insertion
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He reports a recent fall but denies any significant trauma. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. His INR is 6.5. A CT scan of the chest is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate immediate next step in management?

A. Observe and repeat INR in 6 hours
B. Administer intravenous vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)
C. Perform a needle thoracostomy
D. Administer intravenous protamine sulfate
E. Administer intravenous heparin
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric pain, especially when lying down. He has a history of GORD, hypertension and COPD. His vitals are stable. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Administer intravenous antibiotics for possible aspiration pneumonia
B. Prescribe a short course of oral corticosteroids for COPD exacerbation
C. Order a barium swallow study to assess esophageal motility
D. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and schedule an upper endoscopy
E. Perform a diagnostic thoracentesis to rule out pleural effusion
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A 55-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion. She has a history of menorrhagia. On examination, she appears pale and has conjunctival pallor. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 70 fL, and low serum ferritin. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Arrange for a blood transfusion
B. Refer for a colonoscopy
C. Prescribe erythropoietin
D. Start oral iron supplementation
E. Order a bone marrow biopsy
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A 5-year-old child with a known history of asthma presents with acute shortness of breath and wheezing after playing outside. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

A. Administer intravenous magnesium sulfate
B. Administer salbutamol via a spacer
C. Administer ipratropium bromide
D. Administer oral prednisone
E. Start oxygen therapy
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A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischemic heart disease presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath, orthopnea, and peripheral edema. On examination, he has elevated jugular venous pressure, bilateral basal crackles, and pitting edema in the lower limbs. An echocardiogram shows an ejection fraction of 35%. What is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient?

A. Initiate digoxin therapy
B. Perform coronary angiography
C. Start oral beta-blockers
D. Administer intravenous furosemide
E. Prescribe oral ACE inhibitors
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A 10-year-old girl with a 3-day history of shortness of breath, fever, and headache has been diagnosed with pneumonia. What signs might be seen in severe pneumonia?

A. Bilateral lung crepitations.
B. Normal oxygen saturation
C. Improved appetite
D. Absence of fever.
E. Tachycardia
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A 65-year-old man with a history of COPD presents with fever, productive cough, and shortness of breath for 3 days. On examination, he has crackles in the right lower lung field. A chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe consolidation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Lung cancer
C. Heart failure
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Community-acquired pneumonia
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A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents with exertional dyspnea and fatigue. His physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, a heart rate of 88 bpm, and a soft S4 gallop. There is no peripheral edema. An electrocardiogram shows left ventricular hypertrophy with repolarization abnormalities. Which of the following diagnostic tests would be most appropriate to evaluate for underlying coronary artery disease in this patient?

A. Coronary angiography
B. Cardiac MRI
C. 24-hour Holter monitoring
D. Transthoracic echocardiography without stress
E. Exercise stress echocardiography
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with worsening shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze over 2 days, requiring her salbutamol reliever daily and waking her at night. Her PEF is 60% of her personal best. She is alert, speaking in sentences, RR 22, HR 95. Based on Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Prescribe a course of oral prednisolone.
B. Order a chest X-ray to rule out pneumonia.
C. Increase the dose of her regular inhaled corticosteroid.
D. Arrange immediate transfer to the nearest emergency department.
E. Administer inhaled salbutamol via spacer and reassess clinical status and PEF.
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A 60-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-month history of progressive shortness of breath and a dry cough. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently on methotrexate and low-dose prednisone. On examination, she has fine inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. A high-resolution CT scan of the chest shows reticular opacities and honeycombing predominantly in the lower lobes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Interstitial lung disease secondary to rheumatoid arthritis
E. Pneumonia
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A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath and fatigue over the past two weeks. He reports occasional palpitations but denies chest pain or syncope. On examination, his blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 130 bpm (irregularly irregular), respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Jugular venous pressure is elevated, and there are bilateral lung crackles. An ECG shows atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. An echocardiogram reveals moderate mitral regurgitation and left atrial enlargement. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A. Initiation of antiarrhythmic therapy with amiodarone
B. Rate control with intravenous diltiazem
C. Immediate electrical cardioversion
D. Initiation of oral anticoagulation
E. Referral for mitral valve surgery
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A 34-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute-onset shortness of breath. A CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is ordered, shown in the photograph, confirming a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment option for this patient?

A. Thrombolytic therapy.
B. Caval filter.
C. Unfractionated heparin or low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH).
D. Dabigatran.
E. Warfarin.
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric pain, especially when lying down. He has a history of GORD, hypertension and COPD. His vitals are stable. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of his presentation?

A. Gastric malignancy
B. Esophageal dysmotility
C. Reduced lower esophageal sphincter tone
D. Aortic aneurysm
E. Pneumonia
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A 72-year-old woman presents with sudden onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. She had knee surgery 10 days ago. She has a history of hypertension. On examination, she is anxious, respiratory rate is 24, heart rate 105, BP 130/80, SpO2 92% on room air. Lungs are clear. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. There is mild swelling in the operated leg. Considering the likely diagnosis, which initial investigation is most appropriate?

A. D-dimer
B. Chest X-ray
C. CT pulmonary angiography
D. Ventilation-perfusion scan
E. Lower limb ultrasound
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A 70-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with fatigue, shortness of breath, and bilateral leg swelling. Echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 30%. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

A. Calcium channel blocker
B. Nitrate therapy
C. ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker
D. Digoxin
E. Diuretic therapy alone
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male on warfarin presents with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain after a fall. His INR is 4.5. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Administration of intravenous vitamin K
B. Bronchoscopy to rule out airway obstruction
C. Observation with serial chest X-rays
D. Administration of prothrombin complex concentrate
E. Insertion of an intercostal chest drain
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe dyspnoea and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He denies trauma. On examination, he is tachypnoeic, oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 95 bpm. Chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the right. A CT scan of the chest is performed. Considering the patient's clinical presentation, medical history, and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate immediate management strategy?

A. Arrange for urgent bronchoscopy to investigate airway obstruction.
B. Increase warfarin dose and monitor INR.
C. Observe closely in the emergency department with serial chest X-rays.
D. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics and arrange for thoracentesis.
E. Administer Vitamin K and Prothrombinex (PCC) and arrange for chest tube insertion.
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old patient presents with intermittent chest discomfort and increasing shortness of breath, particularly after meals. Vitals are stable. Physical examination is unremarkable. A chest X-ray is performed. Considering the radiographic findings in the context of the patient's symptoms, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Trial of high-dose proton pump inhibitors
B. High-resolution CT chest
C. Barium swallow study
D. Referral for surgical assessment and repair
E. Urgent cardiac catheterisation
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old patient presents to their GP with a 3-month history of intermittent retrosternal chest discomfort, often described as a burning sensation, worse after meals and when lying flat. They also report mild shortness of breath on exertion and occasional regurgitation, but deny significant dysphagia or weight loss. Past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. Medications are perindopril and paracetamol. On examination, vital signs are stable (BP 130/80, HR 75, RR 16, SpO2 97% on air), and lung sounds are clear. A chest X-ray is performed as part of the workup. Based on the clinical context and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in investigation?

A. Reassure the patient that the X-ray is normal and advise lifestyle modifications
B. Oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD)
C. Refer for formal cardiac stress testing
D. Commence a trial of high-dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy
E. Perform pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
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A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain radiating to his left arm, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. On examination, he is diaphoretic, and his blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A. Administer intravenous fluids to address hypotension
B. Administer beta-blockers to reduce myocardial oxygen demand
C. Administer morphine for pain management
D. Administer aspirin and initiate reperfusion therapy
E. Administer nitroglycerin for chest pain relief
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A 5-year-old boy presents with wheezing, shortness of breath, and a history of recurrent respiratory infections. His symptoms worsen with exercise and during the night. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Asthma
D. Viral pneumonia
E. Foreign body aspiration
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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with increasing shortness of breath and intermittent chest discomfort over the past week. She reports some difficulty swallowing larger food boluses recently but denies significant heartburn. Her past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. On examination, her vital signs are stable: BP 135/85 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 18/min, SpO2 94% on room air, Temp 36.8°C. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at the left base. A central venous catheter is noted in the right subclavian vein. Initial blood tests show a mild normocytic anaemia (Hb 105 g/L) and normal inflammatory markers. An urgent imaging study is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings on the imaging study, which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of the patient's anaemia?

A. Chronic mucosal erosion within the displaced viscus
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency secondary to impaired absorption from dysphagia
C. Anaemia of chronic disease exacerbated by her underlying osteoarthritis
D. Acute blood loss from a peptic ulcer distal to the pylorus
E. Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia associated with the indwelling central venous catheter
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of acute onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He reports that the pain started suddenly this morning and has been gradually worsening. He has a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, for which he takes warfarin. He denies any recent trauma or injury. On examination, his vital signs are: heart rate 115 bpm, blood pressure 95/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 30 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 87% on room air. Auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds on the right side. The patient appears pale and is diaphoretic. His INR is 6.5. A CT scan of the chest is performed, and the relevant image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A. Perform needle thoracostomy followed by insertion of an underwater seal drain
B. Administer intravenous protamine sulfate and monitor for improvement in respiratory status
C. Administer intravenous furosemide and monitor urine output
D. Insert a chest tube and administer intravenous vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)
E. Administer intravenous antibiotics and schedule a repeat CT scan in 24 hours
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Giant hiatal hernia, CT image. 63 year old man.
Image by Jmarchn CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort over the past several months. He reports feeling full quickly after eating only small amounts. He denies any chest pain, fever, or recent weight loss. His past medical history includes hypertension and well-controlled type 2 diabetes. He takes lisinopril and metformin daily. On examination, his vital signs are stable: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 82 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at the left base. Abdominal examination reveals mild epigastric tenderness to palpation, but no rebound tenderness or guarding. The provided image was obtained. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A. Initiate a proton pump inhibitor and monitor symptoms
B. Esophageal manometry
C. Endoscopic surveillance every 3 years
D. Surgical repair
E. Barium swallow study
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 75-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with acute dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. He is hypotensive with a BP of 90/60 mmHg and tachycardic at 110 bpm. His INR is 7.2. A chest CT is performed (image attached). Considering the clinical context and imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate immediate management step?

A. Administer intravenous Vitamin K and Prothrombinex-VF
B. Initiate high-flow nasal cannula oxygen
C. Arrange for urgent surgical consultation for thoracotomy
D. Perform urgent tube thoracostomy
E. Administer intravenous furosemide
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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male on warfarin presents with sudden onset dyspnea. His INR is 6.0. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A. Administer IV vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate
B. Observe and repeat imaging in 24 hours
C. Perform needle thoracostomy
D. Administer IV protamine sulfate
E. Administer IV furosemide
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A 62-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. She describes the pain as sharp and worse with inspiration. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis and is currently on warfarin. On examination, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Her jugular venous pressure is elevated, and she has clear lung fields on auscultation. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia with right axis deviation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pericarditis
D. Pneumothorax
E. Aortic dissection
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